Gospel Obedience
at
Did Paul preach the same gospel at
Paul himself, in his conversion, was baptized. You may recall the words of Ananias to him, "arise,
and be baptized, and wash away your sins." (Acts
There is a troubling passage in 1 Corinthians that cause
some trouble on the subject of baptism - 1 Cor. 1:14. Paul preached baptism, was baptized himself,
and yet here he says, in writing to the church at
We know Paul preached baptism at
There is no need for doubt as will be shown. If Paul preached one gospel in one location that had baptism in it and another gospel in another location that did not then why should any of us listen to anything he had to say? He says, "even though we, or an angel from heaven, should preach to you a gospel contrary to that which we have preached to you, let him be accursed." (Gal. 1:8 NAS) If Paul preached more than one gospel he condemned himself by his very own words. That did not happen.
In the book of Galatians, Paul says in chapter 3:26-27, "For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus. For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ." (NAS) We need for the purpose of our study to emphasize the words "baptized into Christ".
What does the word "for" mean? Has Paul not tied faith in Christ directly with baptism? If you have faith in Christ you are baptized. If you do not have faith in Christ you are not baptized. It is that simple.
True faith in Christ demands baptism for the reason that Jesus taught it. You cannot have faith in Christ and yet lack faith in what he taught and commanded. (See Matt. 28:19 and Mark 16:16 on what Jesus taught on the subject of baptism.)
Let me ask some questions based on this passage - Galatians 3:27. Paul says, again, "for all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ." What about those who were not baptized? Did they cloth themselves with Christ? Did Paul say for all of you who were not baptized into Christ have put on Christ? Is that what he said?
How does one get into Christ, the only place salvation can be found? Does not the text tell us clearly if we will only listen?
If Paul preached baptism once he preached it everywhere he
went whether the text says he did nor not.
There is absolutely no choice but to infer that he taught baptism to
both
All of that said we need not make necessary inferences about baptism at Corinth for Paul in writing to the church at Corinth says in 1 Cor 12:13, "For in one Spirit we were all baptized into one body." Baptized into what body? The body of Christ as per Gal. 3:27.
Objection may be made and it be said that the body is the
church (Eph.
One needs to get himself into Christ where salvation is and the road to doing that is certainly faith but not faith alone apart from repentance, confession of Jesus, and baptism for the remission of sins which places one in Christ.
The reader should not confuse being in the church mentioned in the Bible with denominations. The thing Paul is discussing is not denominationalism which did not exist when Paul wrote and would not for hundreds of years to come. One is baptized into the New Testament church, the one Christ established and gave his life for and which will be saved on the last day. Everyone in the church will be saved provided they live faithful lives.
Now to the passage at hand which troubles some, 1 Cor. 1:14-17 (NAS), Paul speaking, "I thank God that I baptized none of you except Crispus and Gaius, that no man should say you were baptized in my name. Now I did baptize also the household of Stephanas; beyond that, I do not know whether I baptized any other. For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel, not in cleverness of speech, that the cross of Christ should not be made void."
There are two points about this passage that we have to keep
in mind lest we be led astray. (1) The
problem at
Baptism is "into Christ" (Gal.
He says that in light of what was going on there. Had he baptized more then the more likely there would be more claiming to be of Paul and Paul wanted no part of this division in the church that was occurring. His point is that men are baptized into Christ, not into a man, and thus should wear the name of Christian only. There is no such thing as being of Paul, or of Apollos, or of Cephas and it is wrong to claim allegiance to such and divide the church.
(2) The second thing we must understand is that just because
Paul did not do the baptizing does not mean that his helpers such as Timothy
and others did not do so on his behalf in rendering aid to him in his
work. We have another account of this
very thing with Jesus. John says,
"When therefore the Lord knew that the Pharisees had heard that Jesus was
making and baptizing more disciples than John (although Jesus Himself was not
baptizing, but His disciples were) he left
We need to use our common sense. Paul is not going to preach baptism and then
not see that it is done when people respond to his preaching. None of us think that Peter personally
baptized the 3,000 who responded to his preaching on the day of Pentecost when
he preached baptism for the remission of sins (Acts
I think we have pretty much covered the ground that needs to
be covered concerning what happened in